What is the difference between he and habia




















Last edited by Rusty; June 09, at PM. I can give you examples and I think that may be easier than explaining the linguistics of it. Originally Posted by Rusty. I edited my post after you read it. I didn't take the time to look up all the English names, but the Spanish ones are different. Sorry about the confusion. No problem. I'm just glad I haven't been learning them by the wrong names. I know about haber and the past participles already, but my question was on those 3 forms of haber.

Hube is the past? And haya is the subjunctive? Is that would have? Is that correct? I don't see those forms you listed in the thread title except in the perfect tenses. From my understanding they are conjugated differently in the tenses that aren't perfect.

I'm starting to confuse myself. Originally Posted by wafflestomp. BB code is On. All times are GMT Only the user who asked this question will see who disagreed with this answer. Featured answer. Spanish Mexico English US. He had drunk - Habia bebido. Ha is used as the present perfect in english. He has drunk - Ha bebido. See a translation. Read more comments. Hay: t. Rachelline ah no. Learn Spanish. Sign in. I know that the verb haber is used to go into the past tence.

Usually i see the present tense of haber being used before the past participle So for I - He eschuado But sometimes i see the imperfect being used.

Edit 2: Is the difference between them that 1 means "I did not listen" and the other means "I was not listening? Thanks Edit 3 - heard and listened can probably be interchanged however here, just the above is how I personally would think of them without any context or sentences to look with.

Edit: 5 Although I thought it was clear from context, no they are not exactly the same. Some good background knowledge - that i use Michel Thomas, included in the answer. I like that.



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